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The Muscular System

The Muscular System

 

1. The study of the muscular system is known as               .

 

A. kinesiology

 

B. pathophysiology

 

C. myology

 

D. biology

 

E. neurology

 

2. Which of the following is not a function of the muscular system?

 

A. Stability

 

B. Heat production

 

C. Control of openings

 

D. Secretion

 

E. Breathing

 

3. What term best describes the relationship between the pronator quadratus and supinator?

 

A. Fixators

 

B. Antagonists

 

C. Synergists

 

D. Prime movers

 

E. Depressors

 

4. Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called  .

 

A. compartments

 

B. fascicles

 

C. retinacula

 

D. aponeuroses

 

E. groups

 

5. Which of the following describes muscular tissue emerging directly from bone rather than being separated from it by an obvious tendon?

 

A. Direct attachment

 

B. Indirect attachment

 

C. Inverted attachment

 

D. Aponeurosis

 

 

 

6. The rectus femoris is an example of what muscle shape?

 

A. Fusiform

 

B. Parallel

 

C. Triangular

 

D. Elongated

 

E. Pennate

 

7. Groups of muscles are separated by which of the following?

 

A. Epimysium

 

B. Fascicles

 

C. Perimysium

 

D. Fascia

 

E. Endomysium

 

8. Which term below best describes the deltoid?

 

A. Fusiform

 

B. Intrinsic

 

C. Involuntary

 

D. Extrinsic

 

E. Parallel

 

9. Which term best describes the relationship of the deltoid and SITS muscles during shoulder abduction?

 

A. Prime movers

 

B. Antagonists

 

C. Synergists

 

D. Fixators

 

E. Adductors

 

10. The semitendinosus is an example of what muscle shape?

 

A. Triangular

 

B. Fusiform

 

C. Sphincter

 

D. Convergent

 

E. Pennate

 

11. Which of the following muscles is the prime mover for inhalation?

 

A. Internal intercostals

 

B. External intercostals

 

C. Diaphragm

 

D. Stylohyoid

 

E. Hyoglossus

 

12. Which of the following extensors of the head is the most superficial?

 

A. Trapezius

 

B. Semispinalis capitis

 

C. Splenius capitis

 

D. Sternocleidomastoid

 

E. Temporalis

 

13. The occipitalis and frontalis are connected via the      .

 

A. galea retinaculum

 

B. galea aponeurotica

 

C. galea cranium

 

D. galea orbicularis

 

E. galea neurotica

 

14. Which of the following muscles of facial expression is not innervated by the facial nerve?

 

A. Orbicularis oculi

 

B. Zygomaticus major

 

C. Corrugator supercilii

 

D. Levator palpebrae superioris

 

E. Buccinator

 

15. A point of convergence for several muscles of the lower face is the  .

 

A. retinaculum

 

B. aponeurotica

 

C. modiolus

 

D. nuchal line

 

E. galea

 

16. The attaches to the zygomatic arch and also to the angle of the mandible.

 

A. masseter

 

B. buccinator

 

C. temporalis

 

D. genioglossus

 

E. stylohyoid

 

17. Which one of these muscles helps to open the mouth (depress the mandible)?

 

A. Zygomaticus major

 

B. Digastric

 

C. Sternohyoid

 

D. Depressor anguli oris

 

E. Hyoglossus

 

18. The palatoglossus is innervated by which nerve(s)?

 

A. Hypoglossal

 

B. Accessory

 

C. Vagus

 

D. Hypoglossal and accessory

 

E. Accessory and vagal

 

19. Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular elevation?

 

A. Temporalis

 

B. Lateral pterygoid

 

C. Stylohyoid

 

D. Zygomaticus major

 

E. Zygomaticus minor

 

20. The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the   at its inferior margin.

 

A. linea alba

 

B. rectus sheath

 

C. linea semilunaris

 

D. medial retinaculum

 

E. inguinal ligament

 

21. The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the       .

 

A. transverse abdominal

 

B. internal oblique

 

C. rectus abdominis

 

D. latissimus dorsi

 

E. pectoralis minor

 

22. While sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil onto the floor. You bend over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam you must use which of the following muscles?

 

A. Tibialis anterior

 

B. Erector spinae

 

C. Semimembranosus

 

D. Tibialis anterior and semimembranosus

 

E. Extensor hallucis longus

 

23. Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body?

 

A. Transverse abdominal

 

B. Latissimus dorsi

 

C. Trapezius

 

D. Pectoralis major

 

E. External abdominal oblique

 

24. Unilateral contraction of which muscle causes ipsilateral flexion of the lumbar vertebral column?

 

A. Multifidus

 

B. Latissimus dorsi

 

C. External intercostals

 

D. Serratus anterior

 

E. Quadratus lumborum

 

25. In lifting a heavy weight from the floor, one should use the power of the      in order to avoid straining the lower back.

 

A. biceps brachii and brachialis

 

B. gastrocnemius and soleus

 

C. external and internal abdominal obliques

 

D. knee and hip extensors

 

E. trapezius and latissimus dorsi

 

26. In a whiplash injury, the neck undergoes forced hyperextension then hyperflexion, injuring multiple muscles in the neck. Which of the following muscles would be injured during the hyperextension phase of the injury?

 

A. Trapezius

 

B. Splenius capitis

 

C. Sternocleidomastoid

 

D. Semispinalis capitis

 

E. Levator scapulae

 

 

 

27. Tendinous intersections divide the   into segments that are externally visible on the abdomen of a well-muscled person.

 

A. vastus lateralis

 

B. serratus anterior

 

C. rectus abdominis

 

D. quadriceps femoris

 

E. transverse abdominal

 

28. The rectus abdominis is a      muscle, while the rectus femoris is a       muscle.

 

A. fusiform; parallel

 

B. parallel; bipennate

 

C. convergent; unipennate

 

D. bipennate; parallel

 

E. multipennate; convergent

 

29. Which of the following correctly states the proximal and distal attachments of the sternocleidomastoid?

 

A. Sternal manubrium and lateral one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line

 

B. Sternal manubrium and medial half of clavicle; mastoid process and medial one-third of superior nuchal line

 

C. Sternal manubrium and medial one-third of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral half of superiornuchal line

 

D. Sternal manubrium and lateral half of clavicle; mastoid process and lateral one-third of superior nuchal line

 

E. Mastoid process and lateral half of superior nuchal line; sternal manubrium, medial one-third of clavicle

 

30. The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula, as in shrugging and lowering theshoulders, are the              .

 

A. trapezius and serratus anterior

 

B. pectoralis minor and serratus anterior

 

C. levator scapulae and rhomboideus

 

D. trapezius and rhomboideus

 

E. trapezius and latissimus dorsi

 

31. Which cranial nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius?

 

A. Abducens

 

B. Facial

 

C. Vagus

 

D. Accessory

 

E. Trigeminal

 

32. Which muscle(s) of respiration is(are) innervated by the phrenic nerve?

 

A. Diaphragm

 

B. External intercostals

 

C. Internal intercostals

 

D. Innermost intercostals

 

E. Pectoralis major

 

33. After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?

 

A. Depressor anguli oris

 

B. Orbicularis oris

 

C. Levator labii superioris

 

D. Platysma

 

E. Quadriceps femoris

 

34. Which muscle attaches to the manubrium and the thyroid cartilage, and aids in singing low notes?

 

A. Omohyoid

 

B. Thyrohyoid

 

C. Sternothyroid

 

D. Stylohyoid

 

E. Lateral pterygoid

 

35. Some people suffer involuntary urination due to incompetence of what muscle?

 

A. External urethral sphincter

 

B. Bulbospongiosus

 

C. Compressor urethrae

 

D. Ischiocavernosus

 

E. Levator ani

 

True / False Questions

 

36. A sacral fracture affecting the S3 and S4 nerve roots would result in a person having difficulty with evacuation of the bowels.

 

True   False

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

37. A baseball pitcher who injures one of his SITS muscles most commonly sustains tears to the tendon of which muscle?

 

A. Supraspinatus

 

B. Infraspinatus

 

C. Teres minor

 

D. Subscapularis

 

E. Deltoid

 

38. Which of the following is true regarding the levator scapulae?

 

A. It is innervated by the phrenic nerve.

 

B. It elevates the scapula if the scapula is fixed.

 

C. It rotates the scapula and depresses the apex of the shoulder.

 

D. It flexes the neck if the scapula is fixed.

 

E. It protracts the scapula if the humerus is fixed.

 

39. Which of the following is an intrinsic muscle of the hand?

 

A. Extensor carpi radialis brevis

 

B. Adductor pollicis

 

C. Extensor pollicis longus

 

D. Extensor indicis

 

E. Abductor pollicis longus

 

40. The serratus anterior is innervated by which nerve?

 

A. Accessory

 

B. Dorsal scapular

 

C. Long thoracic

 

D. Lateral pectoral

 

E. Axillary

 

41. Which muscle acting on the arm assists in deep inspiration?

 

A. Pectoralis major

 

B. Trapezius

 

C. Teres minor

 

D. Diaphragm

 

E. Deltoid

 

42. A butcher who cuts the distal portion of his fingers may cut the          tendon.

 

A. flexor pollicis longus

 

B. flexor carpi ulnaris

 

C. palmaris longus

 

D. adductor pollicis

 

E. flexor digitorum profundus

 

43. When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region?

 

A. Pronator quadratus

 

B. Semimembranosus

 

C. Pronator teres

 

D. Buccinator

 

E. Supinator

 

44. The antagonist to the triceps brachii is the     .

 

A. deltoid

 

B. aconeus

 

C. biceps brachii

 

D. supinator

 

E. teres minor

 

45. Which of the following best describes the insertion of the extensor digitorum?

 

A. It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand.

 

B. It indirectly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb.

 

C. It directly inserts on all digits of the hand.

 

D. It directly inserts on all digits of the hand except the thumb.

 

E. It directly inserts on the index finger only.

 

46. Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to the attachment of which of the following?

 

A. Extensor hallucis longus

 

B. Pronator quadratus

 

C. Extensor carpi radialis longus

 

D. Subscapularis

 

E. Fler digitorum profundus

 

47. An injury that results in complete functional loss of the ulnar nerve will affect which of the following muscles?

 

A. Abductor digiti minimi

 

B. Abductor pollicis brevis

 

C. Flexor carpi radialis

 

D. Brachioradialis

 

E. Extensor indicis

 

48. Carpal tunnel pressure is sometimes relieved by surgically excising part or all of which structure?

 

A. Palmar aponeurosis

 

B. Extensor retinaculum

 

C. Flexor retinaculum

 

D. Extensor aponeurosis

 

E. Median nerve

 

49. What is the longest muscle in the human body?

 

A. Iliopsoas

 

B. Sartorius

 

C. Erector spinae

 

D. Semitendinosus

 

E. Semimembranosus

 

50. Which of the following muscles is in the medial compartment of the thigh?

 

A. Soleus

 

B. Adductor longus

 

C. Piriformis

 

D. Vastus medialis

 

E. Semimembranosus

 

51. Which of the following muscles inserts on the head of the fibula?

 

A. Extensor digitorum longus

 

B. Tibialis anterior

 

C. Popliteus

 

D. Biceps femoris

 

E. Semitendinosus

 

52. Which muscle is innervated by the tibial nerve?

 

A. Extensor digitorum longus

 

B. Tibialis anterior

 

C. Semimembranosus

 

D. Fibularis longus

 

E. Vastus lateralis

 

53. Which of the following muscles is responsible for medially rotating the tibia on the femur when the knee is flexed?

 

A. Piriformis

 

B. Semitendinosus

 

C. Adductor brevis

 

D. Vastus medialis

 

E. Sartorius

 

54. Which of the following muscles adducts and medially rotates the thigh?

 

A. Gracilis

 

B. Piriformis

 

C. Adductor magnus

 

D. Rectus femoris

 

E. Sartorius

 

55. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the obturator nerve?

 

A. Gracilis

 

B. Biceps femoris

 

C. Tibialis anterior

 

D. Soleus

 

E. Sartorius

 

True / False Questions

 

56. Injury to the deep fibular nerve would cause inability to extend ones toes. True   False

 

57. The triceps surae consists of three muscles in the lower limb.

 

True   False

 

Multiple Choice Questions

 

58. A clinician induces contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus and notices that the foot does not plantar flex as expected. Which of the following would be a logical diagnosis?

 

A. Peroneal nerve injury

 

B. Ruptured calcaneal tendon

 

C. Anterior compartment syndrome

 

D. Shinsplints

 

E. Lateral plantar nerve injury

 

59. A male sustains a crushing injury to his foot. After weeks of care, he begins to notice that he cannot bend the little toe on his right foot. Which of he following would be a logical diagnosis?

 

A. Atrophy of the flexor hallucis brevis

 

B. Atrophy of the fibularis brevis

 

C. Atrophy of the soleus

 

D. Atrophy of the flexor digiti minimi

 

E. Atrophy of the adductor hallucis

 

60. A heavyset middle-aged insurance salesman, who doesn’t exercise often, accepts his friend’s invitation to a pickup basketball game. When attempting a jump shot, he falls to the ground in pain, grasping at the calf of his leg. There is an enormous bulge in his leg immediately below the popliteal fossa, and he is unable to plantar flex that foot. Most likely he has injured his   and the bulge is                .

 

A. quadriceps tendon; his rectus femoris

 

B. calcaneal tendon; his triceps surae

 

C. patellar ligament; his fibularis longus

 

D. tibia; a previously undetected bone tumor

 

E. hamstrings; a large hematoma (blood clot)

 

61. An Olympic sprinter readies for a race. After the sound of the starting gun, he propels himself forwardfrom the starting block and immediately grimaces in pain, grabbing for the back of his thigh. Within 48 hours he begins noticing extensive bruising on the back of his thigh extending into the back of the knee. He now has difficulty rising from a seated position and flexing his knee. Bending at the waist generates more pain. Which muscle is likely injured?

 

A. Gluteus maximus

 

B. Popliteus

 

C. Biceps femoris

 

D. Gastrocnemius

 

E. Iliopsoas

 

62. After childbirth, a woman begins experiencing tremendous pain in her groin, making it difficult for her to walk. An X-ray shows a fracture extending from her symphysis pubis to the inferior ramus of the pubis. As a result of the fracture, which group of muscles might be impaired?

 

A. Hip flexors

 

B. Thigh abductors

 

C. Hip extensors

 

D. Lateral rotators

 

E. Thigh adductors

 

63. A skydiver’s parachute fails to deploy. After some struggle, his reserve chute deploys in time to save his life. However, his landing is harder than normal and he feels his knee slightly hyperextend. He shakes it off and goes about his normal routine. Later that day he begins experiencing knee pain. Two days later he notices that his knee “pops” when he crouches and soon discovers he has dislocated his femur on the knee. What muscle was likely injured initially?

 

A. Popliteus

 

B. Tensor fasciae latae

 

C. Soleus

 

D. Sartorius

 

E. Quadriceps femoris

 

64. A skateboarder falls and lands directly on his buttocks and lower back. He does not feel much pain and continues skating. After a couple of days he begins experiencing right hip pain and notices his right foot and leg are rotated to the right. A doctor diagnoses a muscle spasm. Which of the following muscles is most likely causing the leg and foot rotation?

 

A. Quadratus lumborum

 

B. Tibialis posterior

 

C. Piriformis

 

D. Adductor longus

 

E. Sacrospinalis

 

65. An   muscle is contained within a region whereas an muscle acts upon one region but has an attachment elsewhere.

 

A. intrinsic; extrinsic

 

B. extrinsic; intrinsic

 

C. innate; extraneous

 

D. extraneous; innate

 

66. You hear a loud noise behind you and look back over your left shoulder. Which of the following is true?

 

A. This was a contralateral contraction of your right sternocleidomastoid muscle.

 

B. This was a contralateral contraction of your left sternocleidomastoid muscle.

 

C. This was an ipsilateral contraction of your right sternocleidomastoid muscle.

 

D. This was an ipsilateral contraction of your left sternocleidomastoid muscle.

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